Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam,640-802 CCNA: CCNA

แสดงบทความที่มีป้ายกำกับ CCNA แสดงบทความทั้งหมด

วันอาทิตย์ที่ 11 มีนาคม พ.ศ. 2555

CCNA 1 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers

1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F

3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical

6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth

10.Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable

11. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

12. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic

14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 V4.0 Answers

1. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

2. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
8
16

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5.Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7.Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC – PC
source MAC – S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP – PC
source IP – S0/0 on RouterA
source IP – Fa0/1 of RouterB

8. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
media sharing
application processes
logical topology
intermediary device function

9. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
MAC
HDLC
NIC

13. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16. What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

วันเสาร์ที่ 10 มีนาคม พ.ศ. 2555

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers

1. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32 **

2.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252

3.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

4.Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27
/25
/28

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

7. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.

8. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing

9. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

10. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

11.Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

12. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

13. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

14. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing

15. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification

16. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

17. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

18. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network
an octet
an octet
a radi

20.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

21. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers **
network printers **
routers **
remote workstations
laptops

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
source and destination IP address

3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
time-to-live
header checksum

5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
network portion
gateway address

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
192.133.219.1

7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
geographic location
ownership

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
router
hub
switch
firewall
access point
bridge

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
performance degradation
security issues
limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility

15.Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
4
5
7
8
11

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19.Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers

1.Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using three client sessions.
The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.
The local host is listening for TCP connections using public addresses.
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
The local host is performing the three-way handshake with 192.168.1.101:1037.

2. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
80
1024
1728

3. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
source and destination

4. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6.Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

7.Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
3431
3475

8. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
UDP
HTTP
DNS

12. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

13. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
window size
acknowledgments

14. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
source port

15. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
session establishment
numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
transport
network

19. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.

20. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

21.Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

CCNA 1 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
applications
dialogs
requests
services

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
centralized administration
does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP
ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
application
transport

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
1261
15533
3912
65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

CCNA 1 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers

1. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow

2. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit the need for hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors

3. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)
tracks delay between end devices
enables consistent network paths for communication
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device

4. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

5. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session

6. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation

7. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

8.Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device

9.Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)Network A — WAN
Network B — WAN
Network C — LAN
Network B — MAN
Network C — WAN
Network A – LAN

10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

11.Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation

12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

13. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch

14.Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?
source
end
transfer
intermediary

15.Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN

16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport

17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the destination host address
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J

19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.

20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data presentation
reliability, flow control, and error detection
network media control
the division of segments into packets

21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

CCNA 1 Chapter 1 V4.0 Answers

1.Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
**They are non-network connections.
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
**They are used for initial router configuration.
**They are asynchronous serial ports.
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
**debugging.
**password recovery.
routing data between networks.
**troubleshooting.
connecting one router to another.

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
connects peripherals in a single location.
connects multiple networks in a single building.
provides connectivity on a LAN.
**provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
**switching.
static addressing.
IETF standardization.
**dynamic or static routing.
**consistent end-to-end addressing.

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
straight-through cable.
**terminal emulation software.
**rollover cable.
**RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
V.35 cable.

6. Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
bits per second.
**data bits.
**parity.
**stop bits.
flow control.

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
hubs.
**routers.
**communication servers.
transceivers.
**modems.
multi-port repeaters.

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file.
**stores routing table.
**holds fast switching cache.
retains contents when power is removed.
**stores running configuration file.

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
can be accessed remotely.
***does not depend on network services.
***displays startup and error messages by default.
does not require special components.

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
**CPU.
hard drive.
***input/output interfaces.
keyboard.
monitor.
***system bus.

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
twisted.
crossover.
***rollover.
straight.

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router’s configuration file?
metal-oxide memory.
read only memory.
flash memory.
***non-volatile random access memory.

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
packet configuration.
**configuration files.
flash memory.
internal components.

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
***straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
***a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
volatile random access memory.
read only memory.
***non-volatile random access memory.
flash memory.

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
***physical layer.
application layer.
transport layer.
***data link layer.
session layer.

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
***connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
***can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
hold the IOS image.
***connect the router to LANs and WANs.

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
***troubleshooting problems.
***monitoring the system.
capturing LAN data packets.
***configuring the router.
routing data packets.

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
ARP tables.
bridging tables.
***routing tables.
switching tables.

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table.
***retains contents when power is removed.
***stores the startup configuration file.
contains the running configuration file.
stores the ARP table.

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
holds the startup configuration by default.
***can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
***stores Cisco IOS software images.
stores routing table information by default.
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.

วันอังคารที่ 25 ธันวาคม พ.ศ. 2550

Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam

Exam Description
The 640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) is the composite exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification.
Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) v1.0 and
the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 courses. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and
skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network.
The topics include connecting to a WAN; implementing network security; network types; network media; routing and switching fundamentals;
the TCP/IP and OSI models; IP addressing; WAN technologies; operating and configuring IOS devices;
extending switched networks with VLANs; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists;
establishing point-to-point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.

640-802 CCNA

CCNA 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 3 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 4 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 5 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 6 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 8 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 9 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 10 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Module 11 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 - Final Exam Answers

Technorati Profile

CCNA Exploration

The Cisco CCNA® Exploration curriculum provides a comprehensive overview of networking; from fundamentals to advanced applications and services. It is based on a top-down approach to networking that is popular in many colleges and universities. This course emphasizes theoretical concepts and practical application, while providing opportunities for students to gain the skills and hands-on experience needed to design, install, operate, and maintain networks in small-to-medium businesses, as well as enterprise and service provider environments.

CCNA Exploration offers in-depth theory, challenging labs, and a detailed overview of protocol operations. It is designed for students with advanced problem-solving and analytical skills, such as degree candidates in engineering, math, or science, or for working professionals who would like to advance their careers or gain certification. CCNA Exploration was designed to be integrated into technology curricula or continuing education programs at postsecondary institutions such as technical schools, colleges, and universities.

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